Six exam dates confirmed, with December 21 replacing December 19
The National Testing Agency (NTA) has revised the UGC NET December 2026 examination to December 14, 15, 16, 17, 18 and 21, while setting November 23 for the examination city intimation slip and December 7 for admit cards. The changes come in a consolidated corrigendum containing 28 amendments and clarifications covering applications, scoring, examination centre rules and disability support.
Contents
- Six exam dates confirmed, with December 21 replacing December 19
- November 4 is the deadline for permitted corrections
- What candidates must pay, including late charges
- Saved answers count even when marked for review
- Percentiles and marks serve different purposes
- Centre gates close 30 minutes before the test
- Disability support depends on the prescribed certificates
- Eligibility differs for master's and bachelor's graduates
- Answer challenges cost Rs 200 for each question
- Key Points
The agency's original December 2026 information bulletin listed December 14 to 19 as the six examination days, with December 20 and 21 reserved as buffer dates. The revised timetable keeps six examination dates but moves the final day from December 19 to December 21. The original bulletin had left the city slip and admit card release dates to be announced later.
UGC NET determines eligibility for Junior Research Fellowships (JRF), Assistant Professor appointments and admission to PhD programmes, depending on a candidate's qualifications and result category. The subject schedule will be issued separately. Candidates must use their admit cards to confirm their own examination centre, date and shift.
The application and examination calendar is:
- October 8 to 28, 2026: Regular application period, with submission and successful fee payment closing at 11:50 p.m. on October 28.
- October 29 to 31: Late applications, with an additional Rs 500 fee, closing at 11:50 p.m. on October 31.
- November 2 to 4: Application correction window, closing at 11:50 p.m. on November 4.
- November 23: Examination city intimation slip becomes available.
- December 7: Admit cards become available.
- December 14 to 18 and December 21: Revised examination dates.
The city slip gives candidates advance notice of the city where they will take the test. The admit card provides the allotted centre and examination details. Candidates making travel arrangements should account for the revised final date and check their individual allocation before settling their plans.
November 4 is the deadline for permitted corrections
NTA will allow candidates to correct eligible application details from November 2 to 4. Requests to change particulars after that window closes will not be accepted. The agency determines which fields can be edited, so candidates should check the permitted options rather than assume that every entry can be changed.
The application contains information used throughout the examination process, including a candidate's name, contact details, address, category, disability status, qualifications, date of birth and examination city choices. Candidates should review these entries while the correction facility is open.
Examination city preferences can also be revised during the correction window. The choices displayed will relate to the state or Union Territory of the candidate's permanent or present address. Where fewer than four cities are available, candidates may select from the options displayed.
This clarification gives applicants in places with fewer examination cities a workable selection rule. They can choose the available locations rather than search for four options when the application system offers fewer.
What candidates must pay, including late charges
The examination fee is Rs 1,150 for General or Unreserved candidates, Rs 600 for General Economically Weaker Section (General-EWS) and Other Backward Classes Non-Creamy Layer (OBC-NCL) candidates, and Rs 325 for Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe, Third Gender and PwD or PwBD candidates. Applicable payment gateway charges and GST may be payable separately.
The Rs 500 late fee is added to the category fee for applications submitted from October 29 to 31. Before gateway charges and GST, that makes the late application total Rs 1,650 for General or Unreserved candidates, Rs 1,100 for General-EWS or OBC-NCL candidates, and Rs 825 for candidates paying the Rs 325 examination fee.
A successful fee transaction is necessary to complete an application. If a confirmation page is not generated after payment, the bulletin directs candidates to contact the bank or payment gateway to establish whether the payment succeeded or to seek a refund of duplicate or multiple payments.
A failed transaction requires particular attention. Where the money has not reached NTA's account, the bulletin says the amount will be reconciled and refunded by the bank after the result is declared. Candidates must pay again and ensure that the application shows a successful fee status.
NTA's rules distinguish those failed or duplicate transactions from a successfully remitted examination fee, for which the bulletin rules out refund requests. A deduction from a bank account therefore needs to be checked against the application's payment status and confirmation page.
Saved answers count even when marked for review
NTA has clarified that an answered question will be evaluated even if it is also marked for review. A question left unanswered will receive no marks, whether or not it carries the review flag. Candidates should ensure their selected response has been saved.
The clarification resolves inconsistent wording within the original bulletin. Its marking scheme included questions marked for review among those receiving no marks, while its computer test instructions already said that questions answered and marked for review would be evaluated.
The revised rule makes the practical position straightforward: the saved answer determines whether a response can be scored. The review flag allows a candidate to return to the question without removing the answer from evaluation.
The examination still consists of 150 compulsory multiple choice questions worth 300 marks. Paper I has 50 questions worth 100 marks, and Paper II has 100 questions worth 200 marks. Candidates have three hours for both papers, with no break. Each correct response earns two marks, and incorrect responses attract no negative marking.
Percentiles and marks serve different purposes
NTA plans to conduct each subject in a single shift. For those subjects, it will calculate a percentile using the combined marks from Papers I and II. The percentile will appear on the scorecard, while qualification and cutoffs will be determined using marks.
A percentage tells a candidate how much of the available score they earned. A percentile describes their position among candidates: it gives the percentage of candidates who obtained the same or a lower score. Under the bulletin's definition, the highest scorer in a session receives a percentile of 100.
The total percentile is calculated from the aggregate marks across both papers. NTA's bulletin says it is not an average of separate percentiles for the two papers. This matters because combining marks first and averaging two rankings are different calculations.
If unavoidable circumstances require a subject to be examined across multiple shifts, NTA will use the equi-percentile method to normalise marks. In simple terms, the method compares candidates' relative positions within their shifts to produce scores on a common basis.
For a subject held across several shifts, results will show normalised marks alongside percentile scores, and qualifying cutoffs will be applied to the normalised marks. Candidates therefore need to know whether their subject was held in one shift or several to understand which marks are used for qualification.
Centre gates close 30 minutes before the test
Examination centre gates will close 30 minutes before the test begins, and candidates arriving after that deadline will not be admitted. The bulletin advises candidates to report two hours before the examination starts, allowing time for entry procedures.
The allotted date, time and centre on the admit card govern where and when a candidate may sit the examination. NTA's bulletin says candidates cannot attend a different centre or session, and it will not arrange another test for someone unable to appear on their scheduled date.
Centres will provide a ballpoint pen, replacing the earlier instruction that candidates bring one. Normal shoes, slippers and sandals with low heels are permitted. Long boots and watches of all kinds are prohibited.
Candidates with diabetes may carry sugar tablets or whole fruits, and all candidates may bring transparent water bottles. These provisions give applicants specific rules for footwear, hydration and diabetes related needs that they can check before leaving for the centre.
Disability support depends on the prescribed certificates
NTA has revised documentation requirements for candidates seeking a scribe or compensatory time. The required certificate depends on the nature and extent of the disability. The provisions also cover Unique Disability ID (UDID) verification and certain candidates with less than 40% disability who have difficulty writing, subject to the applicable certification.
A scribe assists a candidate by reading questions or entering answers as directed. The bulletin says the scribe cannot explain questions or suggest solutions. NTA can provide a scribe when requested by the candidate.
Eligible candidates who submit the prescribed certificates receive 20 minutes of compensatory time per hour. For the standard examination lasting three hours, that amounts to one additional hour. The bulletin also provides this additional time to eligible candidates with benchmark disabilities whether or not they use a scribe.
Candidates arranging their own scribe should note a change in the paperwork: the undertaking is now listed under Annexure VII rather than Annexure IX. Applicants need the form and certification that match their circumstances, including the provisions that apply to writing difficulties below the 40% disability threshold.
Eligibility differs for master's and bachelor's graduates
General, Unreserved and General-EWS candidates applying through a master's degree or equivalent qualification need at least 55% marks, without rounding. The threshold is 50% for OBC-NCL, Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe, PwD, PwBD and Third Gender candidates.
Candidates awaiting their master's results or still completing the qualification may apply provisionally. Those qualifying for JRF or Assistant Professor eligibility must complete the required degree with the prescribed marks within two years of the NET result. Those qualifying for PhD admission only have one year to complete it.
A separate route applies to candidates with a bachelor's degree lasting four years or eight semesters. They need at least 75% aggregate marks or an equivalent grade, with a possible relaxation of five percentage points for the categories specified in the bulletin.
Candidates qualifying through that undergraduate route are eligible for JRF and PhD admission, but not Assistant Professor appointments. They may take NET in the subject in which they wish to pursue a PhD, regardless of the discipline of their bachelor's degree.
The JRF age limit is 30 years as of December 1, 2026. The bulletin provides relaxation of up to five years for women and candidates in the specified OBC-NCL, SC, ST, PwD, PwBD and Third Gender categories. It also provides three years of relaxation for candidates with an LLM degree. Assistant Professor eligibility and PhD admission have no upper age limit.
Answer challenges cost Rs 200 for each question
NTA will display provisional answer keys and recorded responses before declaring the result. Candidates challenging an answer must pay a nonrefundable processing fee of Rs 200 for each question challenged. Challenging three questions, for example, costs Rs 600.
The bulletin says question papers and recorded responses are likely to remain available for two to three days and advises candidates to download their response sheets. The answer challenge period gives candidates an opportunity to identify a disputed answer before results are finalised.
NTA has not announced the answer key challenge dates or the result date. The bulletin rules out reevaluation or rechecking of results, and says examination records will be preserved for 90 days after the result is declared. Candidates should therefore watch for the provisional key notice and retain their response sheets during the display period.
Key Points
- UGC NET December 2026 will take place on December 14 to 18 and December 21.
- City slips become available on November 23 and admit cards on December 7. The subject schedule will be issued separately.
- Regular applications close October 28. Late applications run October 29 to 31, with an additional Rs 500 fee.
- Permitted application corrections, including examination city preferences, can be made from November 2 to 4.
- Saved answers marked for review will be evaluated. Unanswered questions receive no marks.
- Subjects held in one shift use marks for qualification; subjects held across multiple shifts use normalised marks.
- Centre gates close 30 minutes before the test. Normal shoes are permitted, but long boots and all watches are prohibited.
- Eligible candidates submitting the required disability certificates receive 20 minutes of additional time per hour, with scribe support where applicable.
- Provisional answer key challenges cost Rs 200 per question. Challenge and result dates have not been announced.






